For a while now there's been accusations within / against the UK Labour party of anti-semitism and whether the leadership has been addressing the issue sufficiently. At the heart of the issue appears to be the definition of anti-semitism. Most MPs and Peers now want to use the full IHRA's definition, including all the examples, whereas the Labour leadership is apparently not keen on all the examples:
Would the inclusion of these examples stifle legitimate criticism of Israel or are such examples always an expression of anti-semitism?
More: Labour MPs and peers back internationally recognised definition of antisemitism as party row deepens (23. July 2018)Labour has adopted the IHRA definition in its new code of conduct but has not directly included four of the organisation's 12 examples of antisemitic behaviour, including comparing Israeli policies to those of the Nazis and suggesting the creation of the Jewish state was a racist endeavour.
Would the inclusion of these examples stifle legitimate criticism of Israel or are such examples always an expression of anti-semitism?