AeryFairy
Anachronism
Why on Earth would any group being excluded from use of word(s) that other group(s) are allowed to use see that as positive?
What 'moral' consistency is there in wanting a right (to do/say/think) for self or same that you wouldn't want to be a right for all?
That wasn't what I asked - I asked where the negative effect was. The positive effect for the oppressed group is obvious - they are not subjected to words which have been historically used to dismiss and dehumanise them, by people belonging to the groups doing the oppressing and dehumanising. Obviously, there is an argument for 'nobody gets to say the word', but in my book, if the oppressed group wants to reclaim the word for themselves then that is their call. They earned that much.
Just because there is no real positive effect (beyond not causing offence and perpetuating cultural bigotry) for the group of people who shouldn't use the word, that is not automatically a negative effect.